Public Administration - 1997 (Preliminary Examination)

Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 300

1.Which one of the following statements is incorrect in respect of Simon’s decisions making theory?
(a) Deciding is as Important as doing
(b) Decisions are, in the final analysis, composite
(c) Administrative man maximizes
(d) There is always a means-ends relationship

2. Which of the following statements regarding decision-making are attributable to Simon?
1. Divorce of ends from means is false.
2. Means also entail value assumptions.
3. Traditional ends-means approach is not logical.
4. Behavior alternative model is superior.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4

3. 'Decision-making necessitates the location and control of strategic factors,' this view is
expressed by:
(a) Fayol (b) Barnard (c) Likert (d) Simon

4. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Though the decision making process is an important variable in the organization situation, it alone is not adequate to explain the totality of the organization picture.
Reason (R): Decision-making is a process involving emotional, expressive, rational and instrumental dimensions. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

5. The concept of satisfying behavior comes close to the economic concept of :
(a) Maximizing output (b) Optimum output
(c) Best output. (d) Easily achievable output

6. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Laissez-faire -Leader 1. Deserter
B. Country-Club-Leader 2. Compromise
C. Task Management Leader 3. Missionary
D. Team Management Leader 4. Executive
5. Autocrat
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 5 4
(c) 3 1 5 2 (d) 2 1 4 3

7. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Trait theory 1. Exchange process between leaders and followers
B. Sociometric theory 2. Personality characteristic of a leader
C. Group theory 3. Environmental factors
D. Contingency theory 4. Goals and structure of an organization
5. Facts and values
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 5 1 (d) 3 2 5 4

8. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Leadership comes from a complex relationship between the leader and the led conflicts that arise between the organization and its environment. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

9. Which one of the following theories views leadership as a manipulative function?
(a) Human Relations Theory (b) Scientific Management Theory
(c) Classical Theory (d) Decision Making Theory

10. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The function of communication is not just to get something off the mind of the
transmitter.
Reason (R) : Communication must create the desired impact at the receiving end.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

11. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Classical theorists did not take cognizance of the needs of individuals.
Reason (R) : Need theorists believe that workers are motivated by their own intrinsic needs.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

12. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. ERG theory 1. A.H. Maslow
B. Acquired-Needs 2. Clayton Alderfer
Theory .
C. Hierarchy of Needs 3. David C. McClelland
Theory
D. Equity Theory 4. J. S. Adams
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2

13. Consider the following statements about Civil Service in a developing society:
1. It should act as an agent of change.
2. It should have concern for social equity.
3. It should have concern for vested interests.
4. It should be politically neutral.
Which of the above are correct ?
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

14. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence of the four basic steps in the Position Classification Plan ?
(a) Job analysis, Grouping of Positions, Standardization, Position allocation
(b) Standardization, Job analysis, Grouping of Positions, Position allocation
(c) Grouping of Position, Job analysis, Position allocation, Standardization
(d) Position allocation, Standardization, Job analysis, Grouping of Positions

15. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion {A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Rank classification facilitates literal entry.
Reason (R) : Rank classification facilitates transfers within the service.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

16." The most illustrious English jurists have been men who have never opened a law book till after the close of a distinguished academic career…" This statement was made in favor of
(a) a test of scholastic abilities for entry into civil services
(b) training civil servants for functional specialization
(c) a test after training of civil servants
(d) a period of probation for civil servants

17. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Recruitment has been regarded as the most important function of personnel administration.
Reason (R) : All other aspect of personnel administration are dependent upon right recruitment. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

18. Which of the following regarding training in civil service are true?
1. It should be of a continuous nature.
2. It should be for upgrading the skills.
3. It should be for updating the knowledge.
4. It should be delinked from promotion.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4

19. Which of the following can be used to ensure objectivity in assessing the suitability of candidates for promotion?
1. Prescribing such criteria as qualifications and experience.
2. Laying down qualities to be assessed
3. Requiring reasons to be recorded for denial of promotion.
4. Requiring adverse reports to be given to the employee concerned.
5. Constituting multimember boards for the purpose.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (d) 2, 3, 4 and 5

20. According to Lopez, which of the following are the primary purposes of performance evaluation?
1. Information 2. Control 3. Review. 4. Motivation 5. Development
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 1, 4 and 5 (d) 3, 4 and 5

21. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Staff councils are the best device to resolve the disputes between the government and public employee.
Reason (R) : Cordial relations between the employer and employees are indispensable for optimum productivity of an organization.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

22. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Public employees, like others, should have the right to demonstrate in order to arouse public conscience about their grievances.
Reason (R) : The government as a model employer is required to provide fair conditions of service.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

23. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The principle of 'fair comparison' for determination of salaries in the civil service, is NOT acceptable.
Reason (R) : Public Administration has no profit motive.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not tile correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

24. Which of the following are major considerations in salary structuring for civil service?
1. Ability to pay 2. productivity 3. Adequacy 4. Rationality
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

25. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Restrictions on political activities of public employees are in their own interests. Reason (R) : Neutrality of civil servants ensures that all of them are treated alike.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

26. Which of the following are included in the principles of anonymity of civil service?
1. Non-accountability of the civil service to the legislature
2. Civil servants becoming professional experts
3.Application of the doctrine of ministerial responsibility
4. Explaining by civil servants what their departments are doing
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1,2 and 3. (d) 2, 3 and 4

27. Which one of the following is a common objective of the 'Rule of Lapse', 'Sunset Legislation' and 'Zero-Based Budgeting'?
(a) Economy in expenditure
(b) Legislative control
(c) Review and reauthorization of expenditures
(d) Ensuring achievement of physical targets

28. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. The Speaker 1.Fixes the time limit for discussion of Demands
B. The Finance Minister 2. Examines the financial operation of the executive
C. The President 3. Makes mention in the Parliament about the annual financial statement
D. The C & AG 4. Participates in the formulation of Five Year Plan
A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 1 4 2 3 (c) 4 1 3 2

29. Given below are two statements, one labeled as R. Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Re-appropriation is an executive act.
Reason (R) : Re-appropriation is permissible to meet the expenditure in a new service.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

30. In the context of the budget, the term guillotine is used with reference to
(a) Appropriation bill
(b) Consolidated fund charges
(c) Voting of Demands
(d) Finance Bill




31. Which of the following form part of the budget in India?
1. Estimated income and expenditure for the following year
2. Revised figures for the preceding year
3. Revised estimates for the current year
4. Actual figures for the previous year
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4

32. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The Ministry of Finance is no longer the central agency to exercise control over finances.
Reason (R) : Administrative ministries demand greater delegation of financial powers from the Finance Ministry for speedy implementation of development programmes.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the Correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(a) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

33. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Voting on the 1. Prior consent of the demands for grants President
B. Budget 2. Not subject to vote of Parliament
C. Money Bill 3. Al instrument of socioeconomic change
D. Charged Expenditure 4. Enactment of Budget
5. Public Accounts Committee
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 3 4 2 5
(c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 1 4 3 2

34. In the h1dian budgetary system, pending the passage of Finance Bill in the Parliament, the provisional collection under Tax Act, 1931 empowers the government to collect taxes for a period of
(a) 50 days (b) 60 days (c) 75 days (d) 90 days

35. Which of the following are included in Budgetary Control by executive?
1. Allotment
2. Apportionment
3. Audit
4. Sanctions
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2,3 and 4 (b) 1,2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4

36. Which one of the following is NOT the occasion for criticizing the administration in the Lok Sabha?
(a) General discussion on the budget
(b) Voting on demands for grants
(c) Motion of tanks to the President
(d) Discussion on the finance Bill

37. Which one of the following is NOT a function of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation? (a) To evolve a systematic pattern of the terms of delegation ,
(b) To improve the methods of publicity of the rules
(c) To lay down rules and regulations on the table of the House
(d) To achieve uniformity in rule-making procedures

38. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The Legislature exerts authority over administration through the appropriation process.
Reason (R) : The gross amount of the appropriation determines the volume of official activity and an itemized appropriation act may leave little or no administrative discretion.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explaT1ation of A
(b) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

39. Which of the following are tools of executive control over administration?
1. Budget 2. Civil Service Code
3. Audit by C & AG 4. Rule-making power
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

40. The most important device of supplying power to the judiciary to invalidate a Statute in India is provided by:
(a) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) Articles 350 and 351
(d) Prerogative Writs

41. Under which of the following circumstances judicial intervention in administration is justified? 1. When there is abuse of discretion
2. When there is honest difference of opinion
3. When there is error of law
4. When there is lack of jurisdiction
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

42. The specific purpose of the proposed institution of Lok Pal is to
(a) strengthen legislative control over administration
(b) supplement Judicial Control over administration
(c) protect and promote insufficient administration
(d) enable effective popular control over administration

43. Which of the following are emphasized by Riggs to compare administrative systems?
1. Model building
2. Cultural Dimension
3. Ecological perspective
4. Structure-functional approach
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

44. In which one of the following countries is control over the administration through questions and motions to 'no confidence' NOT possible ?
(a) Pakistan (b) Britain
(c) USA (d) France

45. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Comparative Public Administration is an attempt to study administrative systems in their ecological settings.
Reason (R) : Socio-economic context has a bearing on administration.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

46. The major conceptual achievement of the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978 in the USA is the vindication of the
(a) inadequate validity of the merit principle
(b) separation of managerial, political and legal aspects of personnel administration
(c) defect of bipartisan nature of the erstwhile C. S. Commission
(d) merits of the theory of checks and balances

47. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Northgate Trevelyan Report 1. Organization of permanent civil service
B. The Pendleton Act 2. Training of Police Personnel
C. Hoover Commission Report 3. Civil Service Examination reform
D. Satish Chandra Committee Report 4. Political activities of civil servants
5. Introducting Merit System:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 5 4 2 3 (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 5 4 3 (d) 1 5 3 2

48. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The Soviet bureaucracy had a subordinate relationship with the Communist Party.
Reason (R) : The functions of the Soviet Government used to be controlled and directed by the Communist Party.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

49. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) What the Treasury does in U.K. is done.
(b) What the Treasury does in U.K. is shared by three agencies in U.S.A.- The Treasury, the
Office of Personnel Management and the Merit Systems protection Board.
(c) What the Treasury does in U.K. is done by the U.S. Treasury.
(d) There are Civil Service Commissions in both the U.K. and the U.S.A

50. Which of the following are distinct features of the British Civil Service as compared with the French Civil Service?
1. Dominance of generalist administrators.
2. Anonymity of central government officers.
3. Restriction on political rights of civil servants.
4. Appointment of the members of the British Administrative class as Chief Executive officers of Local Authorities.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

51. The term 'Shadow Cabinet' in Britain refers to
(a) the Cabinet that is still in the process of formation
(b) the Cabinet Committee that functions under the guidance of the Cabinet
(c) a group of opposition party members with assigned roles
(d) the team of intellectuals advising the Cabinet

52. In which one of the following countries can a citizen / get speedy justice against the wrongful acts of officials?
(a) India (b) France (c) USA (d) England

53. Which of the following statements are true of Public Administration in France?
1. The Prefect is now stripped off of much of his executive power and is rechristened 'Commissioner of the Republic'
2. The Prefect is now given more political and financial powers under a scheme of devolution of powers to communes.
3. The regional prefects' main role is to coordinate economic planning.
4. The Mayors of local communes are independent of the state officials.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

54. Which of the following factors contributed to the movement for comparative studies in public administration?
1. the attainment of independence by a large number of former colonial societies.
2. The need to extend the scope of public administration as a discipline.
3. The emphasis by the United Nations as greater interaction among its members.
4. The involvement of a large number of scholars and practitioners of administration in the post-war reconstruction programmes.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

55. Which one of the following influenced the shaping of British administration in India ?
(a) Fabianism (b) Utilitarianism (c) Pluralism (d) Mercantilism

56. The Central Board of Revenue has been set up by
(a) the Constitution
(b) the order of the Finance Minister
(c) a Law of Parliament
(d) a Presidential order

57. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of Indian administration?
(a) Uniformity
(b) Decentralization
(c) Diarchy
(d) Independent Judiciary

58. The expression 'Prime Ministerial form of government' indicates a form of government in which (a) the Prime Minister is directly elected by the people
(b) the Prime Minister heads a coalition
(c) the Prime Minister is the Head of the State
(d) the Prime Minister is no longer the first among equals but is dominant

59. Which of the following functions are performed by the Central Secretariat?
1. Issuing proclamations of Emergency.
2. Policymaking and its modification.
3. Work concerning legislation.
4. Exercising financial controls.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4

60. The Staff Selection Commission is
(a) an 'attached office' under the Ministry of Personnel
(b) a 'subordinate office' of the UPSC
(c) an autonomous body under the Ministry of Personnel
(d) a statutory body under the UPSC


61. Which of the following statement regarding the Planning Commission is NOT true?
1. It is a body consisting of only specialists.
2. It has been regarded as a Super Cabinet.
3. It consists of both generalists and specialist.
4. It consists of nominees of the National Development Council.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

62. One of the functions of the Planning Commission is to
(a) accordance among the states
(b) recommend Plan Grants for public purpose
(c) supervise the implementation of deregulation
(d) recommend grants-in-aid of revenue

63. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) The Planning Commission prepares the plans in consultation with Union Ministries and State Governments
(b) The various central ministries and state governments draw up their own plans according to their needs irrespective of the allocations of funds
(c) An effort is made through negotiations and discussions to arrive at an agreement among the central ministries and state governments on priorities for planned development.
(d) The Draft of the Ave Year Plan prepared by the Planning Commission is placed before the National Development Council for its approval.

64. Which of the following are NOT subject to the detailed audit of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
1. All Cooperative Societies.
2. All Public Corporations.
3. All civil expenditure.
4. All defence expenditure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

65. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India submits three reports to the Parliament/State Legislatures. Which one of the following reports does NOT come under that category?
(a) Audit Report on Finance Accounts
(b) Audit Report on Appropriation Accounts
(b) Audit Report on Capital Accounts
(d) Audit Report on Commercial and Public Sector Enterprises.

66. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Proper maintenance of accounts of the public funds and their audit by an agency independent of the executive control are essential for an efficient administration of public finances. Reason (R) : The spending authorities should produce receipts or vouchers concerning every paisa which they spend.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

67. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a government company?
(a) It has an audit board of its own
(b) It is a body corporate
(c) It is owned by the state
(d) Its employees are not civil servants.

68. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Organized as a major sub-division 1. Public Corporation
of a department of government
B. Represents a combination of 2. Control Board
government ownership and business
management
C. The Articles of Association are 3. Departmental Undertaking
drawn up by the government and
can be revised by it
D. Devised for multi-purpose project 4. Government Company
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 4 2 3 1

69. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A): There is a feeling that the institution of All India Services needs reconsideration. Reason (R): Members of the. All India Services foster national integration, as they are recruited from different parts of the country.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not ti1e correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

70. Which of the following are the features of All India Services?
1. They are common to both Central and State Governments.
2. They are common to all offices of the Government of India throughout the country.
3. The concept of All India Service is based on Tenure System.
4. The members of All India Services are representatives 'of the Central Government.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 correct
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

71. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
(Organisation) (Function)
A. Ministry of Home Affairs 1. Management of IAS
B. U.P.S.C. 2. Recruitment to Class III (Non-Technical) Posts
C. Ministry of Personnel 3. Cadre controlling of I.P .S.
D. Staff Selection commission 4. Recruitment to Class II posts
5. Advising on inter-service promotions
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 5 2 1 (b) 3 5 1 2
(c) 1 3 5 4 (d) 5 2 3 1

72. Which of the following statements are NOT correct?
1. A Member of UPSC holds office for a term of six years or until he attains the age of 65 years 2. A Member of UPSC is eligible for reappointment for the same post for a second term.
3. A Member of UPSC can accept employment under Central State government after retirement. 4. A Member of UPSC can accept employment as a member of state P.S.C. after retirement. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) l and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1,.2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4

73. Which of the following ensure functional autonomy of the UPSC?
1. the Chairman and Members can be removed only on the grounds given in the Constitution.
2. The expenditure of the Commission is a charge on the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. The Members and Chairman are allowed to accept jobs after retirement.
4. The Chairman and Members being civil servants function in a neutral manner.
Select the correct using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

74. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A): For IAS probationers, "sandwich " training method is employed.
Reason (R) : Field training is useful for providing an insight into the actual administrative situation. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

75. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : A generalist may be defined as a public servant who does not have a special background and is easily transferable to any department.
Reason (R): A generalist by virtue of his general knowledge is capable of working in any department.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are hue and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

76. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Civil servants are influenced in their work by political executives because they know the latter have support in the Cabinet.
Reason (R) : Civil servants put up only proposals as are likely to be approved by the Ministers. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are hue and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

77. Which of the following are the functions of the Chief Minister?
1. To communicate to the Central Government an the decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State.
2. To instruct District Connectors to carry out and the decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State.
3. To communicate to the Governor an decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State.
4. To communicate to the Governor an decisions of the Council of Ministers regarding proposals for legislation.
Select the correct using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

78. Which one among the following is NOT the function of the State Secretariat?
(a) To assist the Minister in the formulation of policy
(b) To act as a channel of communication between one Government and an other
(c) To prepare drafts of legislation to be introduced in the Assembly
(d) To assist the legislature in its secretarial work

79. Which of the following are the positions enjoined upon the Chief Secretary of a State?
1. Secretary to the Cabinet.
2. Chief Advisor to the Chief Minister.
3. Chief of the Secretaries.
4. Head of the Civil Service:
5. Representative of the State in all legal matters.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3, 4 and 5

80. Which of the following statements are true?
1. The territorial jurisdictions of the regional end district offices are coterminous
2. The territorial jurisdictions of regional offices of different departments are not coterminous.
3. The territorial jurisdiction of regional offices of the central and state governments are one and the same.
4. The territorial jurisdictions of the regional and district offices are different.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

81. In which one of the following districts has the 'Files to Field' programme been introduced?
(a) Sirmour (H.P.)
(b) Ahmedabad (Gujarat)
(c) Ahmednagar (Maharashtra)
(d) Sambalpur (Orissa)

82. Which one of the following is NOT a function of Deputy Commissioner/District Collector?
(a) Maintenance of law and order
(b) Survey and Settlement
(c) Trial of cases under IPC
(d) Enforcing provisions of Cr. P.C.

83. Which of the following are provided for in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment?
1. Elections through Chief Election Commissioner.
2. Devolution of functions by State government.
3. Creation of State Finance Commission.
4. Setting up a three-tiered Indian Federation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

84. Which of the following are true regarding the I.RD.P?
1. It is Uni.-dimensional in nature.
2. It adopts a holistic approach.
3. It calls for a high level of coordination.
4. It is mainly a poverty alleviation programme.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4

85. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Multiplicity of authorities in urban areas has added to the problems of citizens.
Reason (R) : New special purpose agencies have been created for urban functions.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

86. Which of the following cause the creation of slums in large urban centers?
1. Increased economic activity in urban areas
2. Per capita income being higher in metro cities.
3. Increased government regulations for urban development.
4. Out migration from small urban centres.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

87. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : State government are obliged to appoint a State Finance Commission under the Constitution. .
Reason (R) : The quantum of money to be paid annually by the state governments to the local bodies is determined by the State Finance Commission.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

88. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The Directorates of Local Bodies in States . supervise the working of Municipal Corporations.
Reason (R) : The State governments need to exercise control over all the local bodies.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R. is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

89. Which of the following are provided for by the 74th Constitutional Amendment in respect of Municipal Corporations?
1. Seats to be filled by direct elections on the basis of wards.
2. Reservation of seats for SC/ST.
3. Reservation of seats for backward classes.
4. One-third reservation of seats for women.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

90..Gerald Caiden has mentioned that the crucial role as assumed by public administration in contemporary society is
(a) Institutionalization of Socio-economic change
(b) Strengthening of roots of democracy
(c) Demoralizing administration
(d) Strengthening of human relations in administration



91. From the Value-Fad stand point, various approaches to the study of Public Administration may be classified as
(a) empirical and normative approach
(b) philosophical and historical approaches
(c) legal and behavioral approaches
(d) structural and ecological approaches

92. Administration is politics since it must be responsive to the public interest." This statement was made by
(a) L. Urwick (b) John M. Piffner
(c) Paul H. Appleby (d) L. Gulick

93. Which of the following statements regarding "New Public Administration " are true?
1. It rejects that public administration which is value-free.
2. It rejects politics-administration dichotomy.
3. It rejects that public administration which is not properly involved in policy.
4. It is more or less bureaucratic and hierarchical.
Which of the above are true?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

94. In which of the following directions does public administration move at present?
1. Multi-foci in study.
2. Mini-paradigms.
3. New Public Administration.
4. Locus and focus approach.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 4 only

95. Consider the following statements about the post-World War" writing in Public Administration?
1. These seek to undertake cross-cultural studies.
2. These seek to evolve a true science of administration based on interdisciplinary approach.
3. These seek to develop appropriate methodology.
4. These seek to analyze all types of social phenomena.
Which of the above are true?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

96. In the evolution of Public Administration there has been a shift in emphasis during successive periods. In this context which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. 1887-1926............. Crisis of Identity
2. 1910-1920............. Scientific Management
3. 1920-1947.............. Human Relations
4. 1948-1966.............. Behaviorism
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4

97. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Public Administration ---Collective activity organisation and management of men and material (b) Development Administration ---Change and Administrative Responsiveness, Rationality, Management-Worker relations .
(c) Comparative Public Administration--- From ideograph to nomothetic
(d) New Public Administration--- Relevance, values, social equity, change

98. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The principal objective of scientific management is to secure maximum prosperity for the employer, coupled with maximum prosperity for employees.
Reason (R) : The philosophy of Scientific Management is that there is no inherent conflict in the interests of the employer , workers and consumers.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

99. According to Taylor, Mental Revolution is
(a) substitution of war by peace and cooperation instead of strife
(b) co-operation instead of strife and efficiency device
(c) efficiency device and piece-rate system
(d) substitution of war by peace and piece-rate system

100. Which one of the following statements is incorrect respect of Taylor?
(a) His view of man was too mechanistic
(b) He upheld the carrot and stick approach
(c) He was preoccupied with efficiency
(d) He stood for creative relationship with work

101. Which of the following are categories of persons', categorized in an organisation by Max Weber?
Those who
1.are accustomed to obey commands.
2. are personally interested in continuing domination.
3. evince interest in promoting change.
4. keep them in readiness to perform changing functions.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

102. Give the below are two statements one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : The developing countries bureaucracy plays a dominant role.
Reason (R) : Weber brought out the merits of bureaucratic system. .
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

103. The 'gangplank' idea is found in the works of
(c) Fayol (b) Follett
(c) Barnard (d) Simon

104. The classical theory of organisation is known as mechanistic theory because
(a) it does not explain the dynamics of organizational behavior
(b) it establishes a formally declared pattern of relationship
(c) it underestimates human factors and oversimplifies motivation
(d) it treats organization as a closed system

105. Mayo made out a case for skills that are:
(a) human and interactive
(b) social and adaptive
(c) scientific and normative
(d) technical and empirical

106. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : Mayo's recommendations are immensely useful not only in the industrial sector but also in 'the administrative system of a state.
Reason (R) : Human beings in all kinds of Organization have some common social needs, feelings, attitudes and desires.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

107. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I (Approaches) List II (Defining Features)
A. Behavioral 1. Descriptive
B. Systems 2. Evolutionary
A. Historic 3. Interact ional
D. Institutional 4. Scientific
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1 (c) 3 4 1 2

108. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Distinction between 1. Herbert A. Simon
obedience and acceptance
B. Distinction between ‘economic 2. Chester Barnard
man’ and ‘administrative man’
C. Distinction between 3. F. W. Taylor
‘charismatic’ ‘traditional’
and ‘legal rational authority’
D. Distinction between 4. Max Weber
‘principles’ and ‘mechanics
of management’ 5. H. Fayol
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 3 5 2
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 3 2 5

109. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
A. Top-down Theory 1. A H. Maslow
B. Bottom-up Theory 2. F. W. Taylor
C. Self actualization Theory 3. Norbert Wiener
D. Cybernetic Theory 4. C. Barnard
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 2 4 3 1

110. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : In systems approach, the process and the course of action is adapted to suit the requirements of the situation.
Reason (R) : The organization has a social purpose' and is a part of the prevailing environment. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

111. Which of the following are implied by Hierarchy?
1. Higher levels cannot take disciplinary action against subordinates.
2. Higher levels have the freedom to carry out the operations.
3. Upper levels set the goals to be pursued.
4. Lower levels take action to pursue the goals.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

112. The scalar principle refers to as
(a) classification of civil servants according to their scales of pay
(b) grading of duties according to the degree of authority
(c) organizing the relations between members of 'line' and 'staff agencies
(d) governing the allocation of persons, to the different levels in the hierarchy

113. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other 1abeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Unity of command means that the entire organization has only one boss and one plan of action to promote efficiency and effectiveness.
Reason (R) : The concept of unity of command is proposed as substitute to the "Functional foremanship"
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

114. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : Span of control depends on personal qualities, skills and experience.
Reason (R) : Empirical studies have found that the span of control will be small if organizational units are located at different places.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true. but R- is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

115. Which one of the following is NOT a proposition in Theory X ?
(a) Man wishes to avoid responsibility
(b) Man has an inherent liking for work
(c) Man must be coerced for working
(d) Man must be threatened with punishment

116. Who among the following do NOT up hold the acceptance theory of authority ?
1. Taylor
2. Fayol
3. Barnard
4. Simon
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a} l and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) l and 4

117. Given below are .two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Coordination can be achieved by establishing direct Personal contact with the people concerned
Reason (R) : Inter-personal communication facilitates quick resolution of differences.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of. the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true .and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

118. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Delegation is not a process of abdication.
Reason (R) : The delegate does not shirk his responsibility.
In the context of the above two statements, Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .
(b) Both A and R are true .but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

119. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Supervision involves inspecting the activities of the subordinates so that they work towards the goal of the organization.
Reason (R) : Individuals have a tendency to work for the achievement of their own ends.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

120. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : Division between one and Staff cannot be watertight.
Reason (R) : Authority is more a matter of influence rather than of command.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true